Grade 11
Objective 2
1 The diagram shows the flow of energy
converted during photosynthesis. From
this diagram it can also be inferred that —
A atmospheric gases are the source
of energy for producers
B organisms depend on organic
compounds to transfer energy
C ultraviolet radiation from the sun is
used for photosynthesis
D heat from plants and animals warms
atmospheric gases
2 When a sea urchin egg is removed from the ocean and placed in
freshwater, the egg swells and bursts. Which of these causes
water to enter the egg?
F Coagulation
G Sodium pump
H Active transport
J Osmosis
3 Why are photosynthesis and cellular respiration often considered
opposites?
F Photosynthesis produces twice as many ATP molecules as
cellular respiration does.
G Water is released during photosynthesis and consumed
during cellular respiration.
H Photosynthesis occurs during the day, and cellular respiration
occurs at night.
J Oxygen is produced during photosynthesis and used during
cellular respiration.
4 Which molecule provides most of the energy used to drive
chemical reactions in cells?
F DNA
G RNA
H ATP
J ADP
Kidneys and Dialysis
• Proteins and other large molecules cannot move through the
membranes of healthy kidneys.
• The presence of large molecules in urine is an indication of
unhealthy kidneys.
• Dialysis is a medical treatment that does the work for failing
kidneys.
• In dialysis, an artificial membrane impermeable to large
molecules is used.
• Dialysis lowers protein levels in urine.
5 The box contains some facts about kidneys and dialysis. Which of
the following best explains why dialysis works?
F Dialysis reduces the size of proteins.
G Proteins are dissolved by urine.
H Dialysis filters proteins from solution.
J Proteins transport membrane fragments.
6 Cholera-causing bacteria have a single flagellum that allows these
bacteria to —
A move
B reproduce
C excrete water
D produce sugar
7 Which of these best explains why a freshwater aquarium would be a
dangerous habitat for saltwater fish?
A The tissues of the saltwater fish would absorb too much acid.
B The organs of the saltwater fish would produce too much
protein.
C The organ systems of the saltwater fish would consume too
much energy.
D The cells of the saltwater fish would gain too much water.
8 The swordfish has a heat-generating organ that warms its brain and
eyes up to 14°C above the surrounding water temperature. What
structures are likely to be found in relatively high concentrations in
the cells of this organ?
A Chromosomes
B Mitochondria
C Nuclei
D Ribosomes
9 The diagram shows cell division in which an error has occurred.
Which of these statements is most accurate?
A Cell A lacks the cytoplasm necessary to continue normal cell
functions.
B Cell B contains enough genetic material for the cell to
reproduce itself.
C Cell A is free of any mutation present in the genetic material of
the parent cell.
D Cell B lacks instructions for making the proteins necessary for
cell metabolism.
10 What process is shown above?
A Cellular ingestion
B Pseudopod formation
C Cell wall digestion
D Binary fission
11 Which of these is a characteristic of body cells that require large
amounts of energy?
A They have a large number of mitochondria.
B They have a supplementary Y chromosome.
C They have a two-layer membrane.
D They have a storage area for albumin proteins.
12 Saltwater fish remove extra salt from their body by active transport
through the gills. What is the result of this activity?
A The salt becomes more chemically active.
B Water balance is maintained in the blood.
C The rate of energy production is decreased.
D The cell membrane becomes less permeable to water.
13 The Greek scholar Aristotle studied plants. He believed that plants
obtain everything they need from the soil. Current understanding
does not support this belief. Which of the following would least likely
be absorbed from the soil?
F Minerals
G H2O
H Nitrates
J CO2
14 The picture shows a cell model and the solutions associated with it.
In this situation the cell model will —
A gain mass
B shrink
C increase in solute content
D start to vibrate
15 Working muscle cells that are deprived of oxygen produce —
A alcohol
B lactic acid
C citric acid
D acetone
16 In DNA, which of the following determines the traits of an
organism?
F Amount of adenine
G Number of sugars
H Sequence of nitrogen bases
J Strength of hydrogen bonds
Avery and Associates’ Investigation with Pneumococcus
17 Which of the following best describes the question this set of procedures was
designed to answer?
A Can a substance from dead bacteria transform living bacteria?
B Can R bacterial cells survive heating?
C Can dead bacterial cells confer immunity to a living host?
D Can bacterial cells be isolated from a healthy host?
18 Coat color in mice varies greatly, ranging from black to grizzly
gray, black-and-white, spotted, or white. The nucleus from a body
cell of a grizzly-gray mouse is fused with an egg from a black mouse
from which the nucleus has been removed. The egg begins to divide
and is then transplanted into a female white mouse. What will be the
most likely coat color of the offspring?
F Black
G Black with white spots
H Grizzly gray
J White
19 All of the following are found in a DNA molecule except —
A carbon dioxide
B deoxyribose
C nitrogen
D phosphate
20 Which molecule is most responsible for determining an
organism’s eye color, body structure, and cellular enzyme
production?
A Complex starch
B Fatty acid
C Carbohydrate
D Deoxyribonucleic acid
21 In all plant and animal cells, the nucleus contains long
molecules of DNA. Which of the following best describes the
function of DNA?
F DNA provides the shape and structure of the nucleus.
G DNA packages materials for transport through the nucleus.
H DNA carries materials into and out of the nucleus.
J DNA contains the blueprint for producing the whole
organism.
22 Erwin Chargaff studied the DNA of organisms within a single
species. Chargaff discovered that the amount of adenine is about
equal to the amount of thymine. Which of these explains why the
ratio of adenine to thymine is nearly 1:1?
A Adenine and thymine pair with each other.
B Adenine binds with phosphates, while thymine binds with
nitrates.
C Adenine and thymine are identical in chemical composition.
D Adenine bases contain a form of thymine.
23 Proteins are produced according to a special code found in the
control center of the cell. Which of these molecules carries this
code?
A DNA
B ATP
C Glucose
D Lipid
Sex-Linked Inheritance
24 What do the results of this investigation indicate?
F This trait is determined by the Y chromosome.
G Red-eyed flies always produce red-eyed offspring.
H White-eyed flies have many phenotypes for eye color.
J This trait is carried only on the X chromosome.
25 ―Thymine—guanine—thymine—cytosine‖ describes —
F nucleotides within an RNA strand
G a sequence of bases within a DNA section
H points of DNA separation during protein synthesis
J tRNA codons for specific amino acids
26 Which cellular function does this model represent?
A Respiration
B Protein synthesis
C DNA replication
D Photosynthesis
27 If the template of a strand of DNA is 5' AGATGCATC 3', the
complementary strand will be —
F 3' TCTACGTAG 5'
G 5' CTACGTAGA 3'
H 3' AGATGCATC 5'
J 5' AGACGTCTA 3'
28 If a cat has 38 chromosomes in each of its body cells, how many
chromosomes will be in each daughter cell after mitosis?
F 11
G 19
H 38
J 76
29 Which of these represents the DNA segment from which this section
of mRNA was transcribed?
A ACTAAG
B TCUTTG
C GAAUCU
D UCCTGA
30 DNA passes information to RNA during the process of —
F transcription
G active transport
H regeneration
J osmosis
31 Part of a DNA strand is represented in the diagram above. In order
for DNA to replicate, the strand must separate at which of the
following locations?
F Between every phosphate-sugar pair
G Between the eight sugar-base pairs
H Between the four nitrogenous base pairs
J Between any two chemical bonds
32 The diagram above shows how an mRNA molecule is synthesized.
What would be the most likely result if a bacterial infection stopped
the production of the RNA polymerase?
F A protein could not be manufactured.
G A lysosome would digest the cell.
H Osmosis would not occur in the cell.
J Dehydration could be prevented in the cytoplasm.
33 Which of the following must occur before DNA replication can take
place?
A Translation of DNA into amino acids
B Separation of the DNA molecule into codons
C Transformation of DNA into RNA
D Separation of the DNA double helix
3'CGGUAU5'
34 This is a short section of mRNA. Which DNA code probably
produced this section of mRNA?
A 3' GCCTUT 5'
B 5' GCCAUT 3'
C 3' ATTGCC 5'
D 5' GCCATA 3'
35 Mutations in DNA molecules can occur when —
F replication of DNA is exact
G a DNA enzyme attaches to an RNA codon
H RNA codons are replaced by DNA nucleotides
J a change occurs in DNA nucleotide bases
Codon Chart
First Second Letter Third
Letter U C A G Letter
Phenylalanine Serine Tyrosine Cysteine U
Phenylalanine Serine Tyrosine Cysteine C
U
Leucine Serine Stop Stop A
Leucine Serine Stop Tryptophan G
36 The assembly of a messenger RNA strand that normally begins with UAC
has been changed so that the newly assembled messenger RNA strand
begins with UAG. Which of the following will most likely occur?
A The protein will be missing the first amino acid.
B The amino acids that make up the protein will all be different.
C The mRNA will become attached to a ribosome.
D The production of the protein will be stopped.
37 Which of these best explains how mutation can be beneficial to an
organism?
A Phenotypic change may create an advantage over other
organisms.
B Recombined genetic material improves genotype stability.
C Mitosis becomes a favored means of reproduction.
D Deoxyribose sugars develop into additional nucleotides.
38 Sickle-cell anemia is a disorder resulting from a mutation that leads
to the production of an abnormal protein. Which component of the
DNA molecule provides instructions for the production of the
protein?
A The phosphate groups
B The sugar molecules
C The sequence of nitrogen bases
D The bonds that hold the sugars to the bases
BRCA1 Gene
• The BRCA1 gene is located on
chromosome 17.
• A healthy BRCA1 gene suppresses
tumor growth.
• Some women inherit a mutant BRCA1
allele from one parent and have an
increased chance of developing cancer.
39 Which of the following is best supported by the information above?
A Mutations located on chromosome 17 will result in cancer.
B Cancerous growth will cause a mutation in some BRCA1
alleles.
C Mutated BRCA1 alleles are only one factor involved in cancer.
D Women with a mutant allele of BRCA1 will develop cancer.
40 A change within a single base pair in DNA is least likely to be
observable if the change affects —
A the production of a stop codon
B an unexpressed recessive trait
C actions of a codominant allele
D the expression of a sex-linked trait
41 The diagram above shows chromosomes in a cell undergoing cell
division. If one of the chromosomes breaks during this process,
which of the following will most likely happen?
A Mutation
B Selection
C Duplication
D Segregation
42 Which of the following is a change that could be passed on to an
organism’s offspring?
F Damage to the DNA of gamete cells
G Damage to skin cells from exposure to sunlight
H Damage to DNA in the cytoplasm of cheek cells
J Damage to hair pigment cells with permanent dyes
43 If one nucleotide is omitted or accidentally repeated in the process
of DNA duplication, which of the following is most likely to occur?
F Gene deletion
G Gene mutation
H Gene insertion
J Gene segregation
44 A deletion of a DNA base from a gene affects an organism by —
F causing future gametes to have additional chromosomes
G changing the sequence of amino acids in a protein
H causing chromosome fragments to form long chains
J changing the structure of ribose sugar in nucleic acids
Common Name Scientific Name
Northern mockingbird Mimus polyglottos
Green-winged teal Anas crecca
Bald eagle Haliaeetus leucocephalus
White-tailed hawk Buteo albicaudatus
Mallard Anas platyrhynchos
45 The table above lists several birds commonly found in Texas.
Which two are the most closely related?
A Northern mockingbird and bald eagle
B Green-winged teal and mallard
C Bald eagle and white-tailed hawk
D White-tailed hawk and northern mockingbird
46 The bullfrog, Rana catesbeiana, is most closely related to the —
F spotted chorus frog, Pseudacris clarki
G Asian flying frog, Polypedates leucomystax
H northern leopard frog, Rana pipiens
J African bullfrog, Pyxicephalus adspersus
47 Which of these classifications is most specific?
A Family
B Genus
C Phylum
D Order
48 The kingdom Animalia includes all of these except —
A jellyfish
B sponges
C amoebas
D roundworms
Certain Characteristics
Of Various Kingdoms
Kingdom Characteristics
Eubacteria Lack organelles and nuclei
Primary one-celled; lack
Protista
specialized tissue systems
No cell wall; have complex
Animalia
cell structure; multicellular
Multicellular organisms;
Plantae
autotrophic
49 This organism most likely is a member of which kingdom?
F Eubacteria
G Protista
H Animalia
J Plantae
Bluebells in Different Locations
Plants known as bluebells exist in England,
Scotland, and the United States. In each of
these locations, however, the plant known as
a bluebell is very different from the plants
called bluebells in the other two locations.
50 Which of these is demonstrated by the information above?
F The need for controlling variables in experiments
G The need for classifying organisms scientifically
H The importance of predicting trends from scientific data
J The importance of questioning experimental evidence
Some Characteristics
of Diospyros texana
• Multicellular
• Eukaryotic
• Makes its own food
51 Which kingdom does this organism belong to?
A Fungi
B Archaebacteria
C Plantae
D Animalia
52 Which of the following is the most specific group used to classify
organisms?
A Kingdom
B Class
C Genus
D Order
53 All these systems help bring materials to the cells except the —
A digestive system
B respiratory system
C excretory system
D circulatory system
54 A portion of the human excretory system is represented in the
diagram. The order in which urine flows through the system is —
F urethra → bladder → ureter → kidney
G ureter → kidney → bladder → urethra
H kidney → ureter → bladder → urethra
J bladder → urethra → kidney → ureter
55 The diagram illustrates the parts of this flower. Which of these parts
are not directly involved in sexual reproduction?
A Stigma and style
B Sepal and pedicel
C Anther and filament
D Receptacle and ovary
56 The diagram represents a human arm. Which structure is most
responsible for moving the arm to a straighter position?
A Tendons of origin
B Biceps
C Radius
D Triceps
57 Which body system is directly responsible for delivering nutrients
to cells throughout the body?
A Circulatory system
B Integumentary system
C Endocrine system
D Respiratory system
58 Red marrow is the principal tissue that produces red blood cells in
humans. In which body system is red marrow found?
F Integumentary system
G Respiratory system
H Nervous system
J Skeletal system
Food is digested in the gastrointestinal
tract to provide nutrients to the body. In
addition, various hormones secreted from the
lining of a few digestive organs allow other
organs to function properly.
59 According to this information, some organs of the gastrointestinal
tract —
A fit in more than one organ system
B perform only one function at a time
C supply the body with platelets
D produce soluble vitamins
60 Why do excess amounts of NaCl in some people’s diets
contribute to high blood pressure (hypertension)?
A The excess NaCl causes red blood cells to shrink.
B The excess NaCl causes the volume of water in the blood to
increase.
C The excess NaCl causes the blood to become thicker.
D The excess NaCl causes the diameter of the blood vessels to
change.
61 According to the graph, about how many grams of KBr can be
dissolved in 200 g of water at 50°C?
A 72 g
B 100 g
C 164 g
D 190 g
62 On a hot summer day, a road-crew worker perspires and then
feels thirsty as her body temperature increases. This response is
an example of —
A releasing enzymes
B decreasing respiration
C assimilating proteins
D maintaining homeostasis
63 Nutrients from digested food move from the digestive system
directly into the —
A circulatory system
B integumentary system
C excretory system
D endocrine system
64 When a person is frightened by a wild animal, some organ
systems immediately become active, while others are
suppressed. Which of these systems is likely to be suppressed?
F Muscular system
G Respiratory system
H Endocrine system
J Digestive system
65 How is the excretory system most likely to respond when an animal
is thirsty?
F By relaxing the smooth muscles
G By retaining body fluids
H By absorbing heat from lymph glands
J By releasing hormones
66 Which of these statements describes one possible interaction
between the endocrine and respiratory systems?
F The heart is composed of muscle tissue.
G Hormones can trigger asthma attacks.
H The rib cage expands to move air into the lungs.
J Blood cells can attack pathogens.
67 How is the circulatory system related to the digestive system?
F The brain stem controls the heart rate.
G Blood carries nutrients to body cells.
H Stomach muscles contract and expand.
J The pharynx is a passageway for air and food.
68 Because chewing begins the breakdown of food before it is
swallowed, digestion starts in the mouth and throat. Which of the
following systems aids most in this early stage of digestion?
A Immune system
B Excretory system
C Muscular system
D Respiratory system
69 The small intestine is to nutrient absorption as the blood is to
nutrient —
A assimilation
B distribution
C regulation
D elimination
Grade 11
Objective 2
Answer Key
Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key
Objective Student
Question Correct Answer Measured Expectation Source - item number
1 B 2 BIO 4B 2004 Info Booklet – 9
2 J 2 BIO 4B 2003 TAKS – 34
3 J 2 BIO 4B Apr 2004 TAKS – 18
4 H 2 BIO 4B Jul 2004 TAKS – 30
5 H 2 BIO 4B Apr 2006 TAKS – 8
6 A 2 BIO 4B Apr 2006 TAKS – 35
7 D 2 BIO 4B Apr 2006 TAKS – 49
8 B 2 BIO 4B Oct 2005 TAKS – 19
9 D 2 BIO 4B Oct 2005 TAKS – 23
10 D 2 BIO 4B Feb 2006 TAKS – 15
11 A 2 BIO 4B Jul 2006 TAKS – 23
12 B 2 BIO 4B Jul 2006 TAKS – 45
13 J 2 BIO 4B Fall 2005 TAKS – 16
14 B 2 BIO 4B Fall 2005 TAKS – 23
15 B 2 BIO 4B Fall 2005 TAKS – 41
16 H 2 BIO 6A 2003 TAKS – 38
17 A 2 BIO 6A Apr 2004 TAKS – 25
18 H 2 BIO 6A Apr 2004 TAKS – 36
19 A 2 BIO 6A Jul 2004 TAKS – 33
20 D 2 BIO 6A Jul 2004 TAKS – 45
21 J 2 BIO 6A Apr 2006 TAKS – 40
22 A 2 BIO 6A Apr 2006 TAKS – 45
23 A 2 BIO 6A Oct 2005 TAKS – 35
24 J 2 BIO 6A Feb 2006 TAKS – 28
25 G 2 BIO 6A Fall 2005 TAKS - 28
Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key
Objective Student
Question Correct Answer Measured Expectation Source - item number
26 B 2 BIO 6B 2004 Info Booklet – 6
27 F 2 BIO 6B 2003 TAKS – 24
28 H 2 BIO 6B 2003 TAKS – 26
29 A 2 BIO 6B Apr 2004 TAKS – 33
30 F 2 BIO 6B Jul 2004 TAKS – 34
31 H 2 BIO 6B Oct 2005 TAKS – 14
32 F 2 BIO 6B Feb 2006 TAKS – 32
33 D 2 BIO 6B Jul 2006 TAKS – 41
34 D 2 BIO 6B Fall 2005 TAKS – 31
35 J 2 BIO 6C Apr 2004 TAKS – 22
36 D 2 BIO 6C Jul 2004 TAKS – 27
37 A 2 BIO 6C Apr 2006 TAKS – 7
38 C 2 BIO 6C Apr 2006 TAKS – 31
39 C 2 BIO 6C Oct 2005 TAKS – 15
40 B 2 BIO 6C Oct 2005 TAKS – 27
41 A 2 BIO 6C Feb 2006 TAKS – 5
42 F 2 BIO 6C Feb 2006 TAKS – 48
43 G 2 BIO 6C Jul 2006 TAKS – 10
44 G 2 BIO 6C Jul 2006 TAKS – 32
45 B 2 BIO 8C 2004 Info Booklet – 7
46 H 2 BIO 8C 2003 TAKS – 12
47 B 2 BIO 8C 2003 TAKS – 49
48 C 2 BIO 8C Apr 2004 TAKS – 31
49 G 2 BIO 8C Jul 2004 TAKS – 32
50 G 2 BIO 8C Oct 2005 TAKS - 10
Grade 11 Objective 2 Answer Key
Objective Student
Question Correct Answer Measured Expectation Source - item number
51 C 2 BIO 8C Feb 2006 TAKS – 19
52 C 2 BIO 8C Fall 2005 TAKS – 33
53 C 2 BIO 10A 2004 Info Booklet – 8
54 H 2 BIO 10A 2003 TAKS – 16
55 B 2 BIO 10A Apr 2004 TAKS – 3
56 D 2 BIO 10A Jul 2004 TAKS – 29
57 A 2 BIO 10A Jul 2004 TAKS – 47
58 J 2 BIO 10A Feb 2006 TAKS – 18
59 A 2 BIO 10A Jul 2006 TAKS – 25
60 B 2 BIO 10B 2002 Info Booklet – 18
61 C 2 BIO 10B 2002 Info Booklet – 20
62 D 2 BIO 10B 2004 Info Booklet – 10
63 A 2 BIO 10B 2003 TAKS – 29
64 J 2 BIO 10B Apr 2004 TAKS – 28
65 G 2 BIO 10B Apr 2006 TAKS – 10
66 G 2 BIO 10B Oct 2005 TAKS – 30
67 G 2 BIO 10B Feb 2006 TAKS – 36
68 C 2 BIO 10B Jul 2006 TAKS – 35
69 B 2 BIO 10B Fall 2005 TAKS – 9